Important Notice: Our web hosting provider recently started charging us for additional visits, which was unexpected. In response, we're seeking donations. Depending on the situation, we may explore different monetization options for our Community and Expert Contributors. It's crucial to provide more returns for their expertise and offer more Expert Validated Answers or AI Validated Answers. Learn more about our hosting issue here.

Does a person have to verbally object to a behavior for it to be defined as sexual harassment?

0
Posted

Does a person have to verbally object to a behavior for it to be defined as sexual harassment?

0

No, but articulating one’s displeasure with another’s behavior communicates very directly the objectionable nature of the interaction and potentially ends the behavior. However, victims of sexual harassment do not have to confront their harassers for the behavior to potentially be sexual harassment. Individuals who believe they are being harassed need only report the alleged harassment to his or her supervisor, an administrative officer or to the OAA/EEO so the University can take prompt action.

Related Questions

What is your question?

*Sadly, we had to bring back ads too. Hopefully more targeted.