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If sodomy occurs after a man marries one of the boys female relatives, does the above rule apply?

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If sodomy occurs after a man marries one of the boys female relatives, does the above rule apply?

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A2: If a person marries the mother or sister or daughter of a boy, and commits sodomy with the boy after the marriage and intercourse, they will not become Haraam for him. But if he does it after Aqd and before intercourse, as an obligatory precaution, they are Haraam.

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