Is logic simply a product of human psychology?
Logically, this is impossible to prove, since I and anyone on Answers is human. If it is a product of human psychology, I would be affected by it. However, the examples you give seem universal to me, in that I cannot comprehend a mind in which A is also not-A. The definitions simply don’t work that way unless you REALLY twist a frame of reference. I suppose that to a being that had no concept of time and perceived the entire universe as a whole might say that my body, for example, is alive AND not-alive because it is alive now but it will surely be dead in the future.
