Under the above clause Indians are not permitted to purchase immovable property in the State. Has this not deliberately nurtured separatist trends in local politics?

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Under the above clause Indians are not permitted to purchase immovable property in the State. Has this not deliberately nurtured separatist trends in local politics?

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This clause in no way governs the purchase of property in J&K, and a cursory glance at the contents will bear this out. The acquisition of property in the State is governed by the Alienation of Lands Act, adopted in the time of the Maharajah and thereafter amended to allow only Indians to own immovable property. However this property is to be acquired only by those Indians who are also State subjects, or permanent residents of the State. This is not the only part of India where the acquisition of property is thus restricted. In all States, Union Territories or regions so classified, only resident tribals are permitted to own property e.g. Mizoram, Nagaland, Lakshadweep, Nicobar, the Bastar region of Madhya Pradesh, the Jharkand region of Bihar etc. This has in no way nurtured separatist feelings in these States or areas. 7. The general belief is that the Kashmiri populace has remained mostly disaffected from India. Why has it not been possible for India, which claims to be among the wo

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