Hi, There is a significant point that you should note before you answer your question on the ‘fairness’ of ‘feudalism’. That is, the word ‘feudalism’ is a loaded term and carries with it nearly two centuries of complex historiography. The notion, first suggested by historians like Round and Maitland at the end of the nineteenth century was built on by F. Stenton in the 50s, but more recently has been show to be far far more complex than initially suggested by the likes of Baxter (‘Earls of Mercia’) and Roffe (‘Decoding Domesday’). The basic ‘feudal’ model is a post-Conquest (i.e. of England, 1066) notion that describes the relationship between a King, a Lord and his men (i.e. the ‘peasantry’). You may have heard of the ‘feudal triangle’ (http://albion.jordan.k12.ut.us/TeacherWe… well, it’s more like a venn-diagram with interlaced and over-lapping concepts of lordship.