What do Romans 9:5; 1Timothy 3:16; Titus 2:13 mean in referring to theos?

Theos is used of the son without the definite article in Matthew 1:23; John 1:1; (1:18 in the ancient texts but not in the Receptus where it is altered to uion), 20:28 etc., Romans 9:5; 2Peter 1:1; 1John 5:20 (cp. Col. 2:9 and 2Peter 1:3,4). The use of the theos without the definite article is in the same sense as that in Psalm 45:6-7 and Heb. 1:8-9. Christ is the elohim of the aeons come in the flesh. This distinction made between Eloah and the entities termed elohim, with Christ as head of the sons of God, was the distinction between the doctrine of the church over the centuries and the Trinitarians, who came after them with their invented doctrine. The 1851 Heydock commentary of the Douay Bible has a footnote to 1John 5:20, that incorrectly tries to allege that the definite article (the) here is used of Christ as elohim. This was done specifically to counter those referred to by Heydock as Socinians, in other words Unitarians of both types (cf. the paper Socinianism, Arianism and ...  more