Important Notice: Our web hosting provider recently started charging us for additional visits, which was unexpected. In response, we're seeking donations. Depending on the situation, we may explore different monetization options for our Community and Expert Contributors. It's crucial to provide more returns for their expertise and offer more Expert Validated Answers or AI Validated Answers. Learn more about our hosting issue here.

Why did monotheism gain precedence over polytheism?

0
Posted

Why did monotheism gain precedence over polytheism?

0

If you go back to the most ancient of writings in the Bible, in the Hindu scriptures, in China…you will find monotheism was first. A great deal of polytheism can be traced linguistically to just a few people in a particular time in history. One rather interesting job of this was done by Hislop in his book Two Babylons. It is available now on net (it was first published over a hundred years ago), here: http://www.biblebelievers.com/babylon/00index.htm Whether or not you agree with the aim of the book is actually irrelevant. Read the introduction and the first two or three sections — pay especial attention to the footnotes. I did some independent research some years ago to track the accuracy of his referencing and could not fault it as far as I was able to go.

0

It didn’t particularly. Monotheism is chiefly the Judeo-Christan-Muslim tradition, the People of the Book. The rest of the world is polytheistic, non-theistic or animist.

What is your question?

*Sadly, we had to bring back ads too. Hopefully more targeted.