Does the economic base have an exclusive causal role?
Callinicos defines the economic base as constituting both the forces and the relations of production; Cohen limits it to the relations of production (Callinicos, 1987: 175; Cohen, 2000: 216). For my purposes it is sufficient to speak rather vaguely of ‘the economic’ without strictly delineating it. The primary assertion of Marx’s theory of history is that the economic is the fundamental causal force in history (Marx and Engels, 1974: 48-49, 57-60; Marx, 1996: 159-161; Ball, 1991: 128). There is some controversy about how to define the superstructure (Elster, 1986: 114-115; Callinicos, 1987: 174; Cohen, 2000: 216-217). Again, it is not necessary to attempt a precise definition, but to point out that any definition of the superstructure includes politics, religion and the law. Is it correct, then, that Marx’s theory of history asserts that these have no causal influence? Firstly, it should be noted that something does not have to be the fundamental cause in order to be a cause in history
