Help please!! WHY DID SHAKESPEAR DECIDE TO GIVE KING LEAR SUCH A TRAGIC ENDING?
A lot of Shakespeare’s plays are taken from old stories, so he may have just been copying the story. But with Lear, he couldn’t really do anything else without it seeming phony. Lear makes a very serious error in judgement when he divides his kingdom among his daughters, and an even worse one when he casts the only good one (Cordelia) away from him and favors the evil ones. The tragedy is his punishment for his horrible mistakes.